I mean officially, because that one dude (a…bishop?) said Edward and Elizabeth’s marriage was invalid because he had already been married… is my understanding.
Unofficially my best guess is that, given that the memory of Henry VI as a boy and his mother as de facto ruler (and how well that’s gone over) was scarcely faded, and given that Elizabeth Woodville was still at large (and he’d executed her brother. so…) aaaand given Richard’s age, title, experience, his own son, his marriage, and his support in the north, he thought he was a better candidate for king than either of his nephews.
(Might’ve gotten this timeline wrong– my apologies if so, I’m not well-versed in this subject)
Site Title 